None Were vs. None Was
The Blue Book of Grammar and Punctuation
None Were vs. None Was
Rule: With words that indicate portions—some, all, none, percent, fraction, part, majority, remainder, and so forth —look at the noun in your of phrase (object of the preposition) to determine whether to use a singular or plural verb. If the object of the preposition is singular, use a singular verb. If the object of the preposition is plural, use a plural verb.
Examples:
None of the pie was eaten.
None of the children were hungry. BUT None (as in, “not a single one”) of the children was hungry is not incorrect.
In a sentence like “None were missing,” there is an implicit noun that answers the question, “None of what?” If that noun is singular, none takes a singular verb. If that noun is plural, it is up to the writer and the sense of the sentence to determine whether none takes a singular or a plural verb.
Examples:
None was missing. (None of the pie was missing.)
None were missing. (None of the cookies were missing. But there may be times when a writer prefers was, as in Not a single one of the cookies was missing.)
Note: Apparently, the SAT testing service considers none as a singular word only. However, according to Merriam Webster’s Dictionary of English Usage, “Clearly none has been both singular and plural since Old English and still is. The notion that it is singular only is a myth of unknown origin that appears to have arisen in the 19th century. If in context it seems like a singular to you, use a singular verb; if it seems like a plural, use a plural verb. Both are acceptable beyond serious criticism” (p. 664)
Pop Quiz
- None of the garbage was/were picked up.
- None of the chairs was/were comfortable.
- She inspected all of the plates and none was/were chipped.
Pop Quiz Answers
- None of the garbage was picked up.
- None of the chairs were or was comfortable.
- She inspected all of the plates and none were or was chipped.
If the article or the existing discussions do not address a thought or question you have on the subject, please use the "Comment" box at the bottom of this page.
Thanks for the refresher course on “none is/none are.”
I think one reason some people insist that “none” is always singular is the notion that it implies the idea of “not one.”
I’m sorry to hear that the SAT testing service considers “none” to be only a singular word. More dumbing of the language.
The AP stylebook also demands that journalists use singular verbs with “none”; for the same reasons that Cassie just mentioned. It’s a contraction of “not one.” This is one more reason why writers need to know their audience when writing.
As we mentioned in our response to Dimitri dated September 14, 2011, the AP Stylebook’s entry says, “none It usually means no single one. When used in this sense, it always takes singular verbs and pronouns: None of the seats was in its right place.
Use a plural verb only if the sense is no two or no amount: None of the consultants agree on the same approach. None of the taxes have been paid.”
In 2013 ENDO wrote referring to a writer’s “audience.” Audiences are comprised of people all in one place listening to sound. A writer has a READING PUBLIC, not an audience.
That is just one definition of the word audience. Another dictionary definition is “the people who watch, read, or listen to something.” (You may also wish to see our November 24, 2014, blog “Media Watch” regarding “comprised of.”)
Thank you for best yet explanation of singular/plural
for “none”. I had agonized for some time over my writing
“None of us are perfect – none of us.” I still have a wavery
feeling when I read that.
I lean toward the side of thinking of none as a singular and see “none was” as a simple matter of subject-verb agreement. Thinking of none as singular, I say that the prepositional phrase coming after none should have no more of an effect on the conjugation of the verb than a prepositional phrase that follows “one” or “neither.” We can agree that “neither” takes a singular in all cases, can’t we?
I see so many youth and adults who cannot identify the subjects of their own utterances. I find that the train derails from that point.
I must be old school; none always followed with a plural, but I am always willing to see how grammar rules are constantly evolving. Just a note – I recently looked up the plural for youth and found that it is youths, a plural most people don’t recognize. I just wanted to send a comment to you to highlight that we have to commit to constantly checking grammar rules.
It is refreshing to hear from an “old school” writer who is not opposed to learning the new rules!
I LOVE how you phrased that:
*I see so many youth and adults who cannot identify the subjects of their own utterances. I find that the train derails from that point.*
“Identify the subjects” and “utterances” are dead on, and a “train derailing” is also SO true.
Even ostensibly professional journalists are screwing everything up nowadays.
And I agree with Millie, Jonathan: Youths is correct; it is disappointing to see and hear so many people drop the s when it is appropriate.
The folks who make SAT tests lean the same way as you do. I think of none like other “portion” subjects such as majority, some, and much. These words can be either singular or plural, depending on the implied or stated object of the preposition.
Examples: Some of the costs were recovered. Some of the cost was recovered. A majority of the pie was eaten. A majority of the pies were eaten.
Thank you, I wish my English course text had been this easy to understand.
I wish so for your sake, too. However, I’m glad this works for you!
The subject of “$50,400 of the fees the Firm earned from you in that period is/are attributable to lobbying-related income” is $50,400. Sums of money are usually thought of as singular so the verb would be “is.” However, you cannot begin a sentence with numerals, so you’d have to recast the sentence or spell out $50,400.
Wouldn’t it be “$50,400 of the fees the Firm earned from you in that period are attributable to lobbying-related income.” The way I read it the subject is “dollars” even if the word isn’t actually written. Would that not make it plural and therefore “are”?
The Chicago Manual of Style recommends use of a singular verb for dollar amounts. Also, our rule 16 of “Writing Numbers” says, “Write out a number if it begins a sentence.” Since the word “firm” is not a proper noun, do not capitalize.
Fifty thousand four hundred dollars of the fees the firm earned from you in that period is attributable to lobbying-related income.
Isn’t the subject a group or section of the FEES?
The subject of the sentence is a dollar amount (“Fifty thousand four hundred dollars”). The Chicago Manual of Style recommends use of a singular verb for dollar amounts.
Which is correct:
“$50,400 of the fees the Firm earned from you in that period are (or is) attributable to lobbying-related income.”
NONE was derived from NOT ONE which makes it absolutely singular.
It is incorrect to say, “One of us were there.” It would be, “One of us was there.”
Logic dictates that the same rules apply when using NONE.
“None (not one) of us was there.'”
Think it through and it becomes quite clear.
Usage may tell you that “None of us were there.’ SOUNDS right, but that it because you are listening to the wrong people. English has ways of compounding incorrect usage when all we HEAR is incorrect usage, even among journalists and others who should know better. Let’s hear it for learning the correct way and using it regardless of what the unlearned say.
This is what Dictionary.com has to say about none:
Usage note: Since none has the meanings “not one” and “not any,” some insist that it always be treated as a singular and be followed by a singular verb: The rescue party searched for survivors, but none was found. However, none has been used with both singular and plural verbs since the 9th century. When the sense is “not any persons or things” (as in the example above), the plural is more common: … none were found. Only when none is clearly intended to mean “not one” or “not any” is it followed by a singular verb: Of all my articles, none has received more acclaim than my latest one.
None may be derived from “not one” but the accepted definition is now “not any.” Not one would imply that there could be zero, one thousand or even a negative or fractional number which would make the word almost useless.
We are not sure which authority designates the “accepted definition,” but in 2013, Merriam-Webster’s Dictionary still acknowledges several definitions for none, including “not any” and “not one: nobody.”
I think this question is one place that the difference between American and British versions of English has muddied the waters. The British use a plural verb with any noun that signifies a plural entity. For example: team, committee, and class are all words Americans consider singular (one team), whereas the British see a team as made up of many players and therefore a plural word. We write “the team was playing at home,” while they write “the team were playing at home.” Your arguments in favor of none being used with a plural verb when referring to a plural entity sound precisely like this logic of “the team were…” — it sounds funny to many American ears, but it is considered completely proper in some English-speaking places.
I learned none means “not one” or “nor any”.
Any is (can be?) plural.
None of us are going to the dance.
You’re correct that “none” means “not one” or “not any.” When the meaning is “not any,” use a plural verb. Your example: None of us are going to the dance. We mean, “Not any of us are going to the dance.” Thanks for writing.
“A fraction of the costs were recovered.”
I think that “Fractions of the costs were recovered.” is a more coherent statement.
The words “A” and “fraction” both lean toward the singular “was”.
Knowing that it bothers me, our preacher says, every Sunday without fail, “There are a number of important announcements in the bulletin.”
I silently utter “There are numbers of important announcements in the bulletin.”, forgive him, though he is strikingly unrepentant, and move on.
Magnanimous of me, isn’t it?
Changing “fraction” to “fractions” is overkill. “A fraction of the costs were recovered” is already correct. See Rule 9.
I am adding a rule to address “a number” vs “the number.” This is what it will say:
The Number vs A Number
The expression the number is followed by a singular verb while the expression a number is followed by a plural verb.
Examples:
The number of people we need to hire is thirteen.
A number of people have written in about this subject.
Plus, the following questions will be part of the subscription quizzes:
1. The number of people lined up for tickets was/were four hundred.
2. A number of suggestions was/were made.
3. There is/are a number of important announcements in the bulletin.
4. Here is/are the number of milk shakes you requested.
Note that one of the quiz questions is from your email.
I’m not a linguist and English is not even my first language, but it would seem to me that determining whether a “group” reference deserves singular or plural treatment depends on whether the reference is to a particular grouping or member of the group (singular) or (defined or undefined – all, some, any, not any) members of the group (plural).
Based on this logic, the rules seem to make sense to me.
This discussion will not end as long as there are what are called “prescriptivists” and “descriptivists” in the world. One tells how it should be, and one tells how it is.
There are several areas of discussion at Wordwizards which are worth looks. One is here:
http://www.wordwizard.com/phpbb3/viewtopic.php?f=6&t=18332&p=44665
You’re right, I am a “descriptivist,” telling it the way I read about it from other experts rather than what I think a rule should state.
the confusion about the “fraction of costs” sentence stems from its ambiguity.
“a fraction of the costs WAS recovered” is correct when “the costs” is understood in the collective sense of “costs in aggregate.” it means that, e.g., the sum of the costs was $1000 but only $50 WAS recovered.
“a fraction of the costs WERE recovered” is correct when the costs are understood as a set of individual costs, rather than a lump sum. it means that, e.g., “costs a and b WERE recovered while costs c through z were not recovered.”
“a number of” is an idiom meaning “numerous.” that’s why it’s plural despite the singular “a.”
you shouldn’t be listening to preachers, jim, but in this case he’s right: “There are [numerous] important announcements in the bulletin.” “there are numbers” makes no sense because there is only one number, some particular quantity, of announcements.
Wow! I expected to spend two minutes finding out if I should write, “None of us were at church,” or “None of us was at church,” but instead, I’ve spent almost fifteen minutes reading and pondering your answer and the comments. :)
I’m glad I’ve found your web site.
“None of us were at church” is correct. We are glad that you find the website helpful.
Same here! Just as I was about to leave, I dived into the comments. Real helpful. As a result, here is how my sentence was finalized:
“Certainly none of them define themselves as being obedient.”
We are glad that the comments were helpful.
Really helpful.
I tend to agree with most of what Jane says. However, there is a problem with the ‘fraction’ example which probably stems from the fact that “a fraction of the costs” appears on the face of it to be grammatically incorrect. One would not refer to a fraction of a number of things (“a fraction of the costs” is like saying a fraction of the people, or a fraction of the motor vehicles.). One would use ‘fraction’ in relation to a singular entity. Therefore, it would be more correct to say “a fraction of the cost”. Once this grammatical inconsistency is cleared up you can apply the word ‘none’ in its singular sense: “a fraction of the cost was … etc.”.
Either wording “A fraction of the costs” or “A fraction of the cost” would be grammatically correct. One of the definitions of the word fraction is “portion.” One could certainly say “a portion of the costs,” especially in a case where one would be describing the various costs of a large project, such as a construction project, for example.
Get out your Grammar books folks – you’re on the wrong track. Look up “Colletivae Nouns”. “None” is a collective noun and is NOT short for “not one”. Collecrive nouns take plural verbs. The verb following a collective noun has nothing to do with what’s “assumed” rto be unspoken or unwritten in the sentence. It’s a simple grammar rule. “None are” is correct.
It appears as if both uses are acceptable. According to the AP Stylebook, “It usually means no single one. When used in this sense, it always takes singular verbs and pronouns: None of the seats was in its right place.
Use a plural verb only if the sense is no two or no amount: None of the consultants agree on the same approach. None of the taxes have been paid.
Merriam-Webster’s Dictionary recognizes none as “singular or plural in construction,” and lists one of the definitions as “not one.”
You say “Use a plural verb only if the sense is no two or no amount: None of the consultants agree on the same approach. None of the taxes have been paid.”
Does that imply that you would say: “None of the consultants agrees to the approach presented.”
Since the sense of the sentence appears to be consistent with “none of the consultants” = “no two of the consultants,” then the plural verb agree should be used. Also see our original rule, which advises: “…look at the noun in your of phrase (object of the preposition) to determine whether to use a singular or plural verb. If the object of the preposition is singular, use a singular verb. If the object of the preposition is plural, use a plural verb.” Since the object of the preposition is consultants, which is plural, your sentence should be “None of the consultants agree to (or on) the approach presented.”
Language changes for various reasons and one is “if enough native speakers make the same mistake then it becomes a rule”. If that were not the case we would all be speaking in Beowolf’s English!
May I assume periods of time fall under the same category as sums of money, i.e. thought of as singular. For example “Thirty minutes was spent with the patient” vs “Thirty minutes were spent with the patient.”
Yes, time, distance, and money are sometimes thought of as a unit and take a singular verb. According to AP Stylebook, “Some words that are plural in form become collective nouns and take singular verbs when the group or quantity is regarded as a unit.”
Right: A thousand bushels is a good yield. (A unit.)
Right: A thousand bushels were created. (Individual items.)
I am constantly being audited negatively in my job as a medical transcriptionist when I change the doctors’ sentences from “A total of 20 minutes was spent” to “A total of 20 minutes were spent.” In my opinion “minutes” is the subject of the sentence, and “spent” is the predicate. Therefore, minutes (being plural) should have “were” rather than “was” spent in the sentence. The word “total” is merely an adjective for minutes. Can you give me some feedback from your perspective?
Just as you would not (and should not) say Two hours are a long time, you would be well advised not to use “were” in your example. The phrase “20 minutes” represents a period of time that (with few exceptions) is customarily considered a unit in English. Other examples: Two miles is a long distance. Two dollars is a lot of money.
I agree with you about ‘a total of 20 minutes was spent’. By the same principle then, it would be ‘a total of 55 options for participants was published’ but it doesn’t sound quite right. What do you think?
No. Our Rule 7 of Subject and Verb Agreement only applies to periods of time, sums of money, etc., when considered as a unit. In other cases, with words that indicate portions, such as total, we are guided by the noun after of. Since 55 options is plural, we recommend using the plural verb were.
I am from India and I am preparing for GRE Exam.I am a regular visitor of your website.Your post was very helpful to me.Questions involving the use of “none” with “is/are” are considered quite difficult to answer.You resolved all my queries.
Thank you.Keep up the good work !
You are welcome, Prateek! We are glad you find our website helpful. Good luck on your exam!
But what about the present tense? You can say “none was” and ” none were” but can you say “none is” as well as “none are”? I don’t think you can say “all is”… Would it be:
All of the group is participating?
or
All of the group are participating?
Yes, you can use the present tense “none is” and “none are.”
Examples:
None is gone. (None of the cake is gone.)
None are home. (None of the children are home.)
You would say, “All of the group is participating,” since group is a singular noun.
This is TOTALLY wrong!!!! Whether a verb is singular or plural is determined solely by the subject of that verb. Nothing in a prepositional phrase can affect that. In fact, that’s just about the first thing you learn about subject-verb agreement!
Portion words are tricky. They are not, in and of themselves, singular or plural and thus most persons have a hard time determining whether to use a singular or plural verb. Referencing the object of the preposition provides a helpful hint as to whether to use a singular or plural verb.
‘None of you are informed’ is as bad as
‘Me and her went to the movies’ or
‘This is between she and I’
‘None’ is singular and the verb should agree with it.
Words like none and some are indefinite pronouns. They are often singular but can also carry a plural sense. The AP Stylebook’s entry says, “none It usually means no single one. When used in this sense, it always takes singular verbs and pronouns: None of the seats was in its right place.
Use a plural verb only if the sense is no two or no amount: None of the consultants agree on the same approach. None of the taxes have been paid.”
I thought we just agreed that if the object (noun) was plural, it would carry the ‘plural’ rule ie None of the seats are free’, please help.
According to Merriam Webster’s Dictionary of English Usage: “Clearly none has been both singular and plural since Old English and still is. The notion that it is singular only is a myth of unknown origin that appears to have arisen in the 19th century. If in context it seems like a singular to you, use a singular verb; if it seems like a plural, use a plural verb. Both are acceptable beyond serious criticism.” When none is clearly intended to mean not one, it is followed by a singular verb.
OK thanks for the info and debate…Because of this, I just lost my bet….so I guess I am correct in saying, “None of the money I had before coming to this site is left!”
Yes, you are correct. Now that you’ve found the site, we hope you can make your money back on future bets!
I needed a quick answer to “none was/were” and I stumbled on your blog. Not only did I get the right answer but you gave me the rationale/rule behind it, so now I’ll know how to decide between was/were in the future.
Thanks! This looks like a great blog which I plan to return to.
Thank you for the positive feedback.
Published writers seem to fail to use the following types of sentenances consistantly. Whish is correct?
It is undecided whether you were/was there.
If I were/was you….
I wish I were/was you….
Who knows if you were/was there?
I would like to be where you were/was when you saw it.
I would have told you but you were/was not there.
These sentences are examples of the subjunctive mood, which refers to the expression of a hypothetical, wishful, imaginary, or factually contradictory thought. The subjunctive mood pairs singular subjects with what we usually think of as plural verbs. The subjunctive is often used in that and if clauses. Also keep in mind that the pronoun you, whether used in a singular or plural sense, always takes a plural verb.
It is undecided whether you were there.
If I were you….
I wish I were you….
Who knows if you were there?
I would like to be where you were when you saw it.
I would have told you but you were not there.
This subject of “was/were” with “none” came up in an editing session with a client yesterday. I felt that “were” was correct in the situation at hand but I couldn’t quote any rules to justify it. Now I know why–it’s a hotly debated topic. However, I’m perfectly comfortable with Jane’s explanation.
At the time, I thought the answer must have something to do with the fact that it’s kind of a math thing. “None” means NEITHER “one” nor “many”, it means “zero”. And if you’ll remember your math, you can’t divide by zero. To me, this seemed like a good enough reason to have a different rule re: singular/plural. Even if the zero factor isn’t the crux of it, I think I’ll use that to help me remember it.
And gee, I just noticed the fact that Jane Straus was lost to us in early 2011. I’ve only just found this website and think it is wonderful. My sincere condolences, “Mr. Jane”, and thank you very much for continuing her/your work via the website.
Thank you very much, Rebecca, for sharing your thoughts and kind words.
I remember the WWII radio bulletins broadcast by the BBC here in the UK that often ended with the words (but not often enough, sadly) – “None of our aircraft is missing”. The grammatical niceties escaped me at the time.
I wish the English professors and the journalistic style guides would come to some agreement. I used the word “Kudos” in a headline and it was singular; however, my boss thought it sounded wrong and forced me to change it to plural. He agreed I was right, but he reminded me that he was the boss and he was right-er. So we did it his way. (No use arguing with the boss.)
I’ve used “none” as singular for too long and it’s awkward. But as long as the AP Style Guide and other guides want to stick to it, it’s difficult to fight. Some television journalists use it religiously as singular, and no one flinches. So what to do?
It’s interesting that your boss agreed you were right, but still exerted the “ego rule.” The AP Stylebook does not require that “none” be singular, but allows for both singular and plural uses.
I have been learning English since Grade 1 — 76 years ago. In the seventies, I was awakened to changes that quietly sneaked into our communications. Now, I have woken to those things that snuck in the back door while I slept.
OMG!
It’s great that you’re still waking up!
Which word takes precedence when determining verb agreement when you have both a “portion” word and a dollar amount? Does the adverb “approximately” modify $50 to make it indicate a portion?
“Approximately $50 of home costs was/were incurred.”
Our Rule 13 of Subject and Verb Agreement says, “Use a singular verb with sums of money or periods of time.” Therefore, write “Approximately $50 of home costs was incurred.”
Thank you.
I was stuck, but you got me out of the mire.
We are happy that we could assist you.
I am enjoying the Blue Book very much, but I do have a question.
On page four, under Rule 9 of the Subject and Verb Agreement lesson, you give several examples:
1. All of the pie is gone.
2. Some of the pie is missing.
3. None of the garbage was picked up.
I was wondering if you could clarify why in the first one, only ‘is’ is identified as the main verb, while in the second and third examples, ‘is’ AND ‘missing’ and ‘was’ AND ‘picked’ respectively, are underlined twice?
As I am understanding it, in examples 2 and 3, ‘is’ and ‘was’ are auxillary verbs, and ‘missing’ and ‘picked’ are the main verbs. If this is correct (and it is quite possible I am wrong), then in example one, would you be able to explain why ‘gone’ is not the main verb?
Thank you for your time, it’s greatly appreciated.
In the first sentence, “gone,” despite being the past participle of the verb to go, functions as an adjective describing “All of the pie.” Is going or has gone are verb forms of to go, but this is not the case with “is gone.”
In the second sentence, “missing” is an adjective. It was wrongly labeled a verb in the tenth edition, but this mistake has been corrected in the new edition due out in February 2014.
You are correct that “was” is an auxiliary verb in the third sentence. (Some grammarians would say the main verb is “picked up,” not “picked.”)
If none means “not one” and one is singular then logic dictates that none is not singular.
Zero people “are”
One person “is”
We treat zero as a plural throughout English, no native speaker would choose to say “zero person”
As far as we know, the SAT testing service has not changed its position on the word none being singular. However, thanks for sharing your logical argument.
Does one say
1) None of the ideas are sound.
2) None of the ideas is sound.
Thank you,
As mentioned on our website in the note following Rule 6 of Subject-Verb Agreement, “If in context it seems like a singular to you, use a singular verb, if it seems like a plural, use a plural verb.”
Will it be “None of the flights have or has landed”?
None can be singular or plural. As mentioned on our website in the note following Rule 6 of Subject-Verb Agreement, “If in context it seems like a singular to you, use a singular verb, if it seems like a plural, use a plural verb.”
How can none be plural when it’s a contraction of “no one?”
And even if it has been used as plural for ages, isn’t it true that for ages people have used incorrect language?
I believe it’s correctly used as only a singular but, as with many other solecisms, the plural has become acceptable through common use. I think it should be resisted.
The word none may be singular or plural. Both usages are now standard. No living English scholar believes differently. The language needed a word for “not any.” Words evolve.
There are other examples of this sort of irritating word evolution. How can anyone endorse the word whose here: A book whose title I forgot. How can a book be “who”?
Should it be “is” or “are”?
1. None of the questions in this set of interrogatories is being propounded for any improper purpose, such as to harass the party, or the attorney for the party, to whom it is directed, or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
As we mention in the Note below Rule 6 of Subject-Verb Agreement, none may be either singular or plural, depending on the context. If you feel that none is clearly intended to mean “not one,” it should be followed by a singular verb.
It is very consoling to note that there are still persons who meticulously research the intricacies of grammar and not just merely go with the flow because of what’s popular – some things are just popularly incorrect.
I will agree that none may be singular or plural depending on the context.
On another note, how should we treat minutes of a meeting? Do we say “The minutes was/were read?
Thank you for your comments. In answer to your question:
The minutes were read.
Can you tell me that which is right option please.
1. None of animals at the zoo……. free.
a).Is
b).Are
c)Both a & b
As the post indicates, both usages are now standard. Therefore, we recommend option c.
None of the animals in the zoo (were, are ) the zoo.
They are both correct. One is past tense; one is present tense.
None of the animals in the zoo were … (past tense)
None of the animals in the zoo are … (present tense)
Rule: The word none is versatile. It has a plural sense (“not any”) as well as a singular sense (“not a single one”). When none is followed by of, look at the noun in your of phrase (object of the preposition). If the object of the preposition is singular, use a singular verb. If the object of the preposition is plural, there is more leeway. Most of the time, but not always, you will want to use a plural verb. [Not one= then “one” is the pronoun and not is an adverb?!] My only concern with “leeway” is teaching students a rule to apply on standardized tests, where a mistake will cost them points. Thanks for your site!
The PRONOUN ‘none’ is NOT versatile. It is always singular. I don’t know where you got your ‘rule’.
We got “our” rule from every major reference book on English that is now in print, including Fowler, Bernstein, Associated Press, and The Chicago Manual of Style. There is no dissenting view. All of these authorities agree that none may be plural. Where did you get your rule?
No wonder people find it difficult to learn English.I’m as confused as I was before I read this. I recently read a piece on a class of locomotives that said none of these WAS preserved and thought surely this should be WERE preserved. Still unsure whether they’re both correct or whether these as plural dictates were not was
Determining whether to use none was or none were can indeed be tricky and require some analysis. In your case, you mention that the sentence contained the phrase none of these. Since the object of the preposition (these) is plural, our rule says “Most of the time, but not always, you will want to use a plural verb.” This may depend upon whether the subject of the sentence was class (singular) or locomotives (plural). Our article goes on to say “If that noun is plural, it is up to the writer and the sense of the sentence to determine whether none takes a singular or a plural verb.” Therefore, it may be a matter of simply trusting the writer’s intent.
If you would like to explore this further, send in the exact passage you are referring to, and we’ll see where that takes us.
So is it right to say “None of the minutes was wasted”? Or is there an error in this sentence?
If the noun is plural (minutes), it is up to the writer and the sense of the sentence to determine whether none takes a singular or a plural verb. Do you intend to convey the meaning “Not one of the minutes was wasted” or “Not any of the minutes were wasted”?
Either replaced any
Neither replaces none. Either of and neither of takes singular verb why not none takes singular verb
The word neither is not a perfect replacement for none. Neither means “not either one; not the one or the other.” The word none can have the sense of “not any” and is not limited to a choice of “one or the other.” That’s why we say “The word none is versatile.”
To me “None” is the same thing as zero so for example the phrase “The U.S. Mint produced 4,000 in 1814 while none was made in 1815” just doesn’t sound correct to me. Shouldn’t it be “None WERE made?” I think “None” in this case suggests plural, No?
We agree. Because there is an implied plural direct object of the verb produced, let’s say it’s coins, the sentence would be “The U.S. Mint produced 4,000 [coins] in 1814 while none were made in 1815.” The clause none were made refers to coins.
I am learning a lot here! Thanks to the team that labors to answer any questions asked here.
Was or Were? “The Navy, and later the Army, was/were so impressed by their performance that sea sleds became their exclusive high-speed boat for the duration of World War I.”
It appears to us that you are wishing to emphasize both of these branches of the military because later in the sentence you write “… sea sleds became their exclusive high-speed boat …” Therefore, for proper grammatical form, we recommend either:
“The Navy and later the Army were so impressed by their performance that sea sleds became their exclusive high-speed boat for the duration of World War I.”
OR
“The Navy and, later, the Army were so impressed …”
However, if you wish to emphasize the Navy in this situation, you could write:
“The Navy—and later the Army—was so impressed by their performance that sea sleds became the Navy’s exclusive high-speed boat for the duration of World War I.”
None of the students are present.
Or
None of the students were present.
Which one is correct?
Both are grammatically correct. The first sentence is present tense, and the second one is past tense.
In researching this topic, I’ve found your explanation, which seems reasonable IF you ignore the origin of the word “none.” I’ve always believed (and it was confirmed in at least one online source) that “none” is a contraction of “not one.” Thus, if you substitute “not one” for “none,” the proper use of the following verb is singular “is.” I know I’m in the minority, but reading “none are” grates on my ears.
Please see our previous replies of August 20, 2009, to Paul E; September 14, 2011, to Dimitri; and August 23, 2016, to Gabriella Grimaldi.
Which one is correct?
1) None of you was sleeping.
2) None of you were sleeping.
This is a matter of writer’s intention. Either
“None [not any] of you were sleeping”
OR
“None [not a single one] of you was sleeping” is acceptable.
Which is correct:
None of John, Mary and Joseph were alive at my death.
OR
None of John, Mary or Joseph were alive at my death.
We assume you are writing a story where the narrator is commenting from the afterlife. We recommend rewriting the sentence as follows:
Neither John, Mary, nor Joseph was alive at the time of my death. (And, yes, neither-nor may be used with more than two subjects.)
If it is correct to say “None of the dogs was hungry,” why is it not okay to write “None of the cake were eaten”?
As the post says, if the noun that is the object of the prepositional phrase that modifies none is singular, it identifies the number of none. The noun object cake is singular; therefore, it would take the singular verb was.
None of you has to stay until the game is over if you don’t want to.
Or
None of you have to stay until the game is over if you don’t want to.
This is a matter of writer’s intention.
Either
“None [not any] of you have to stay…”
OR
“None [not a single one] of you has to stay…” is acceptable.
What is the error in sentence below?
None of the story he tells is true.
The sentence contains no grammatical error.
Thank you very much for this lesson! I finally understood!
In the sentence “she inspected all of the plates, and none was/were damaged,” she inspected plates, which is plural. I think I have always believed that the word “none” is plural. But the subject is “plates,” which is definitely plural, so I am confused why “none was” could be correct. I must be missing the point, but my understanding is that if the subject is plural, use the plural verb. The subject is “plates,” correct?
As the post states, there may be times when a writer prefers was, as in not a single one. This is a matter of writer’s intention.
Either
“…none [not any] were damaged”
OR
“…none [not a single one] was damaged” is acceptable.
I taught English for 20 years, and I always taught that “none” takes singular only. Although I no longer teach English, I use “none” with the singular form only, as it means it sounds totally wrong to me. I do not agree on it taking the plural because “not any persons” makes no sense, so “none” cannot mean so.
As the post states, there may be times when a writer prefers was, as in “not a single person.” This is a matter of writer’s intention.